Evaluate $$\int_0^1 x\arcsin\left(\sin\left(\frac 1x\right)\right) dx=\int_1^{\infty} \frac {\arcsin(\sin x)}{x^3}dx$$
I tried to use Feynman's trick in the second one as
$$I(a)=\int_1^{\infty} \frac {\arcsin(\sin ax)}{x^3}dx$$
We have $I(0)=0$
Now differentiating both sides leads me to an absurd integral as $$I'(a)=\int_1^{\infty} \frac {\cos ax }{x^2\vert \cos ax \vert}dx$$
I am now unable proceed further.
Also If I keep in mind that I need value of integral at $a=1$ and so break the integral in intervals as $$\left(1,\frac {\pi}{2}\right) ;\left(\frac {\pi}{2},\frac {3\pi}{2}\right) ; \left(\frac {3\pi}{2},\frac {5\pi}{2}\right) $$
and so on then this gives me the value of integral as 0. But I suspect it isn't correct because one online software suggests it's value to be $\frac {1}{2}$
Moreover the signum function is always reminding me of the Grandi's series which also in some definition equals $1/2$
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
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