Problem :
Evaluate lim
My Attempts:
Suppose
\begin{align} &L=\lim_{n\to\infty} \left( \frac{1}{n!}\right)^\frac{1}{n \ln n}\\ &\ln L=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n\ln n} \ln \left(\frac{1}{n!} \right) \\ & =-\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\ln n!}{n\ln n}\\ & =-\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\ln n + \ln(n-1) + \cdots+\ln1}{n\ln n} \\ & = 0 \\ &\Leftrightarrow L=1 \end{align}
But the answer is not. Where am I wrong?
And how can I solve this without using stirling approximation?
Answer
You can use Riemann integral to handle the limit. In fact,
\begin{eqnarray} \frac{\ln(n!)}{n\ln n}&=&\frac{\sum_{k=1}^n\ln k}{n\ln n}=1+\frac1{\ln n} \sum_{k=1}^n\frac1n\ln(\frac{k}{n}). \end{eqnarray}
Since
\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac1{\ln n}=0,\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=1}^n\frac1n\ln(\frac{k}{n})=\int_0^1\ln x dx=-1
one has
\begin{eqnarray} \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{\ln(n!)}{n\ln n}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\bigg[1+\frac1{\ln n} \sum_{k=1}^n\frac1n\ln(\frac{k}{n})\bigg]=1. \end{eqnarray}
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