Wednesday, 24 April 2013

real analysis - Must an unbounded set in a metric space be infinite?



I'm new to real analysis and topology. Recently, I'm reading baby rudin. Occasionally, I've a question: does a set is unbounded implies the set is infinite in metric space? I think the statement is right, but I can't prove it.



Please give the strict proof. Thanks in advance.


Answer



Yes (if metric spaces are assumed to be non-empty).



Let X,d denote a metric space.




Suppose that a set SX is finite and let xX.



If we take r>max{d(x,y)yS} then $S\subseteq B(x,r)=\{y\in X\mid d(x,y)

That means that unbounded sets cannot be finite, hence are infinite.






Note: this answer preassumes that metric spaces are not empty. If X= then the finite set is unbounded since X= is not contained in any ball centered at some xX. This because balls like that simply do not exist in that situation.


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