I'm new to real analysis and topology. Recently, I'm reading baby rudin. Occasionally, I've a question: does a set is unbounded implies the set is infinite in metric space? I think the statement is right, but I can't prove it.
Please give the strict proof. Thanks in advance.
Answer
Yes (if metric spaces are assumed to be non-empty).
Let ⟨X,d⟩ denote a metric space.
Suppose that a set S⊆X is finite and let x∈X.
If we take r>max{d(x,y)∣y∈S} then $S\subseteq B(x,r)=\{y\in X\mid d(x,y)
That means that unbounded sets cannot be finite, hence are infinite.
Note: this answer preassumes that metric spaces are not empty. If X=∅ then the finite set ∅ is unbounded since X=∅ is not contained in any ball centered at some x∈X. This because balls like that simply do not exist in that situation.
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