As far as I know, $0^\infty$ is not an indefinite form and it goes to zero. Then the limit of $(\cos x)^{\tan x}$ when $x$ goes to $\pi/2 - $ should equal $0$.
But after log transformation, its limit is $\infty$. I am not sure which one is correct, zero or infinity?
Thanks for your help.
I slightly changed the question. I realized that $x$ goes to $\pi/2 - $ (left hand limit) in the original question.
Answer
Suppose that $f$ and $g$ are functions such that as $x \to a$, $f(x) \to 0$ and $g(x) \to \infty$, and consider $h(x) = f(x)^{g(x)}$. We know that
$$
\lim_{x \to a} \ln h(x) = \lim_{x \to a} g(x) \ln f(x) = -\infty,
$$
Thus,
$$
\lim_{x \to a} h(x) = 0.
$$
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