I would like to know if my proof is valid, because I did it different from the solution in my textbook (which uses Bernoulli's inequality).
If $|x|<1$, then $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}x^{n}=0$.
Proof
For $x=0$ it is trivial, so we suppose that $0<|x|<1$. Let $N>\dfrac{\log(x\varepsilon)}{\log(x)}$, then
\begin{align*}
|x|^{n}
implies that $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}x^{n}=0$ when $|x|<1$.
Answer
Suppose $\;0 $$x=\frac1r\;,\;\;1 Hint for the last part: assume it is false and use the archimedean property of the reals...
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