can anyone help me with following exercise from Rotmann's Advanced Modern Algebra book:
Exercise: Prove that if p is prime and G is a finite group such that every element has order a power of p then G is a p-group.
Hint: Use Cauchy's theorem.
Recall a finite group G is a p-group if its order |G|=pn for some p prime and some integer n≥0.
Thanks
Atempt: I've just written a sketch.
Suppose |G|=pα11⋯pαnn where p1,…,ps are distinct primes and αj∈Z+. We know (by Lagrange and hypothesis) ppn−1=pn∣|G|, so that p∣pα11⋯pαss. In particular p∣pαii for (at least) one i∈{1,…,s}. For simplifying suppose i=1. Then p∣p1 hence p=p1 for both p and p1 are primes. Therefore, |G|=pα1pα22⋯pαnn. The terms pα22,…,pαnn can't occur above otherwise by Cauchy's theorem pj∣|G| for all j=2,…,s so that we could find aj∈G such that o(aj)=pj≠p, a contradiction. Therefore, |G|=pα1 and G is a p-group.
Obs: I didn't like my last argument but I don't know how to write better for now.
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