Let X≥0 be a random variable. Show that for any M>0 that
M∞∑k=1P(X>kM)≤E(X)≤M∞∑k=0P(X>kM).
Attempt
We know, E(X)=∫∞0(1−F(x))dx and P(X>kM)=1−F(kM), where F is distribution function. So by using this I get, M∞∑k=11−F(kM)≤∫∞0(1−F(x))dx≤M∞∑k=01−F(kM).
I was trying to approach like this but can't proceed further. If I am on right track then how to proceed further and if not then how to solve this problem?
Thanks
Answer
Another solution is this:
Since P[X>x]=1−F(x), we can write
E[X]=∫∞0P[X>x]dx=∫∞0P[X/M>x/M]dx=M∫∞0P[X/M>u]du
with u=x/M.
Now, notice that for each k, and for all u∈[k,k+1],
P[X/M>(k+1)]≤P[X/M>u]≤P[X/M>k]
hence
P[X/M>(k+1)]≤∫k+1kP[X/M>u]du≤P[X/M>k]
hence
∑kP[X/M>(k+1)]≤∑k∫k+1kP[X/M>u]du≤∑kP[X/M>k]
which is the same as
∞∑k=1P(X>kM)≤1ME(X)≤∞∑k=0P(X>kM)
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