Wednesday, 12 August 2015

real analysis - Help Debugging a Bogus Proof

We want to prove the standard fact that a smooth function $u :R^2 \to R$ with $ \nabla u = 0$ everywhere in some connected open set $ \Omega $ is constant in that set.



I'm comfortable with the usual proof, but I also thought it could be proved the following way:



$$ \nabla u = 0 \space\iff\space du = 0$$



$u$ also satisfies Laplace's equation($\nabla \cdot\nabla u = 0$), and hence has the mean value property.



Let $x_0$ be any point of $ \Omega $(distinct from the origin!). For any disk $\Delta$ about $x_0$ of radius $r$ sufficiently small, $$u(x_o) = \frac {1} {2\pi} \int_{\partial\Delta}u\space d\theta $$




But, by Stokes' theorem $$ \int_{\partial\Delta}u \space d \theta = \iint_{\Delta}du\wedge d \theta = 0 \tag1$$ (as $d^2 = 0$, and $du = 0$).



This is not the correct conclusion, as $u$ could be equal to any constant.



I think $(1)$ must be the problematic line, but I can't see why, as $$ d(u \space d\theta) = du\wedge d\theta - u \wedge d^2 \theta $$.

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