Show that there does not exist a function $f:\mathbb N\to \mathbb N$ which satisfy
a) $f(2) = 3$
b) $f(mn) = f(m)\cdot f(n)$ for all $m,n \in \mathbb N$
c) $f(m) < f(n)$ whenever $m < n$
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
real analysis - How to find $lim_{hrightarrow 0}frac{sin(ha)}{h}$
How to find $\lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{\sin(ha)}{h}$ without lhopital rule? I know when I use lhopital I easy get $$ \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}...
-
$$ 3x+6y+5z=7 $$ The general solution to this linear Diophantine equation is as described here (Page 7-8) is: $$ x = 5k+2l+14 $$ $$ y = -l $...
-
How to show the following inequality in Measure Theory: If $f$ is a non-negative measurable function defined on a measurable set $E$ then ...
-
I need help to compute the following integral: $$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{z^4}{1+z^8}dz$$ I need to use Cauchy's residue theorem. I ...
No comments:
Post a Comment