does the infinite series ∑∞n=1(−1)nlog(n)n converge?
For this one I tried absolute convergence then I applied the integral test but I realized that log2(x)/2 does not converge so I know that that won't work. Any help? Also I know the limit of an as n approaches ∞=0 however I am not sure if it is non decreasing
Answer
The sequence lognn is decreasing for n>2 because the function x↦logxx is decreasing in (e,∞):
f′(x)=1−logxx2.
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