I need to prove (or disprove but I don't think that's the case) that:
if ab≡0 (mod n), then a≡0 (mod n) or b≡0 (mod n)
I know that ab≡0 (mod n) ⟺n|ab, so if that's true then n must divide either a or b but I don't know how to prove it.
Any assistance is much appreciated.
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