I need to prove (or disprove but I don't think that's the case) that:
if $ab \equiv 0$ (mod $n$), then $ a\equiv 0$ (mod $n$) or $b\equiv0$ (mod $n$)
I know that $ab\equiv 0$ (mod $n$) $\Longleftrightarrow n|ab$, so if that's true then n must divide either a or b but I don't know how to prove it.
Any assistance is much appreciated.
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