The title is essentially the question. Intuitively I would await that any function f(x), which for large x grows slower than any power of x, must necessarily satisfy
limx→∞f′(x)=0.
This holds at least for prominent examples like ln(x) and √x. But I don't know of a statement that it holds in general. Does anyone know or have a proof or counter examples?
Thanks for help!
EDIT: I forgot to mention that f should also be strictly monotonically increasing, for large x, and also that it should be smooth (C∞(R)).
Answer
I assume that f is differentiable (otherwise f′(x) is meaningless).
Assuming the limit exists, it must be 0.
Otherwise, if limx→+∞f′(x)=L>0
then there exists x0>0 such that for x>x0 necessarily
f′(x)>L2
which contradicts our hypothesis that f grows slower than x.
However, nothing ensures that the limit exists. As a counterexample, you could consider
f(x)=∫x0|sint|tdt
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