Context: I am trying to show that ∫∞0x−1sinxdx=π2 using complex analysis, by first integrating ∮Γz−1eiz, where Γ is a closed contour consisting of two portions of real axis −R to ϵ and ϵ to R and two semicircles Γ1(0,R) and Γ2(0,ϵ).
I am almost done. I just need to show that limR→∞∫Γ1eizz=0.
I don't need a rigorous proof. I am new to complex analysis and know almost no theorems. I just want to understand things "intuitively", if it's possible. So far, I know only Cauchy formula/theorem and residue theorem.
I found following solution, which I don't understand very well:
Integrate by parts ∫Γ1eizz=eiziz|R−R+∫Γ1eizz2dz. The first turns out to be 2iRsinR→0. Then absolute value of the integral is bounded by πRmaxΓ1|eizz2|≤πR→0.
Why does it suffice to evalute at R and −R? Why is the integral bounded by this?
Thank you!
Answer
One uses here the inequalilty
|∫Γf(z)dz|≤|Γ|maxz∈Γ|f(z)|
(|Γ| being the length of path Γ), which is almost obvious from the definition of integral of complex variable.
In your case |Γ1|=πR (half of a circle of radius R) and |eizz2|=1|z|2=1R2 for all z∈Γ1, so maxz∈Γ1|eizz2|=1R2.
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