Question:
Prove by mathematical induction that $$(1)+(1+2)+(1+2+3)+\cdots+(1+2+3+\cdots+n)=\frac{1}{6}n(n+1)(n+2)$$ is true for all positive integers n.
Attempt:
I did the the induction steps and I got up to here:
$$RTP:\frac{1}{6}n(n+1)(n+2)+(1+2+3+\cdots+n+(n+1))=\frac{1}{6}(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)$$
Where do I go from here?
Thank you very much.
Answer
What you’ve really done up to this point is use your induction hypothesis to say that
$$(1)+(1+2)+\ldots+(1+2+\ldots+n)+\big(1+2+\ldots+n+(n+1)\big)$$
is equal to
$$\frac16n(n+1)(n+2)+\big(1+2+\ldots+n+(n+1)\big)\;.$$
To finish the induction step you must show that this quantity is equal to
$$\frac16(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)\;,$$
i.e., that
$$\frac16n(n+1)(n+2)+\big(1+2+\ldots+n+(n+1)\big)=\frac16(n+1)(n+2)(n+3)\;.\tag{1}$$
In order to do this, you need a nice closed form for the term
$$1+2+\ldots+n+(n+1)\;.$$
I’m sure that by this point you’ve learned a closed form for the sum of the first $m$ consecutive integers; substitute that (with $m=n+1$) for $1+2+\ldots+n+(n+1)$ on the lefthand side of $(1)$, and do some algebra to show that the quantity on the lefthand side then really does simplify to the quantity on the righthand side.
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