My teacher solved this problem in class but I don't get how one step is justified.
Prove that ∫+∞0e−x2dx=√π2 using this relation ∫+∞0∫+∞0ye−(1+x2)ydydx=π4.
Using Fubini's theorem we switch integrals:
∫+∞0ye−y(∫+∞0e−x2ydx)dy=π4.
Let us compute first:
∫+∞0e−x2ydx=∫+∞0e−t2√ydt=E√y,
where we have made the change x√y=t and E is the integral that we want to compute.
Then ∫+∞0ye−yE√ydy=E∫+∞0y12e−ydy=
=E∫+∞0y32−1e−ydy=EΓ(32)?=
?=E∫+∞0e−s2ds=E2=π4,
therefore E=√π2=∫+∞0e−x2dx.
What I don't get is how does he relate E with the gamma function, that is, Γ(32)=∫+∞0e−x2dx=E.
I have seen that Γ(32)=√π2, but since we don't know the value of E yet (as this is what we are trying to prove), this is not a way to relate them.
Thank you for your help.
Answer
One definition of the Gamma function is Γ(s)=∫∞0xs−1exp(−x)dx=2∫∞0x2s−1exp(−x2)dx, so your integral is 12Γ(12). One only need then use the identity Γ(s+1)=sΓ(s). Indeed, the difference is ∫∞0(xs−sxs−1)exp(−x)dx=[−xsexp(−x)]∞0=0.
No comments:
Post a Comment