Hi there,
I bump into a weird sequence, and know for a fact the following holds.
(Also, I ran MATLAB simulations to double-check.) This sequence comes up when doing research on computing the reliability of a signal to reach the destination when sent through parallel links and the benefit associated with it. (Details can be too long, which might be helpful to get the solution, but I think those who are very good at dealing with sequences don't need it necessarily.)
For any positive integers n and a real number t∈(0,1), the following holds:
n1n∑ni=111−ti+t1−t(1−tn)≤n.
I'm struggling to prove this analytically, though. A few techniques that I have tried usually aim at showing an upper bound of LHS is less than or equal to RHS:
The fact that 1−t≤1−ti≤1−tn holds for all i=1,…,n implies that 11−tn≤1n∑ni=111−ti≤1t holds for all i=1,…,n.
Then, LHS is less than or equal to
n(1−tn)+t1−t(1−tn).
Subtracting RHS with the upper bound above, we get
t1−t(−1+n(1−t)tn−1+tn).
The terms in the parentheses imply that it is less than zero: consider a binomial distribution with paramters n and t.
A few other attempts similar to the above one failed. I also tried to use Bernoulli's inequality (1+x)n≥1+nx, but it didn't help. Maybe I applied the techniques sloppily.
I feel like we should either prove it by induction (when n=1, LHS = RHS. Assuming LHS ≤ RHS for n, we could show it also is true for n+1.), or we begin with defining a sequence, say Sn=1n∑ni=111−ti, and show that the forward difference of LHS is less than or equal to the forward difference of RHS (which is 1).
But, even after hours of effort, I couldn't seem to find a clue. Could anyone help? Thanks!
Answer
Jensen's Inequality and the fact that 11−x is convex on (0,1) say that
1nn∑k=111−tk≥11−1nn∑k=1tk
Therefore,
11nn∑k=111−tk+t1−t1−tnn≤(1−1nn∑k=1tk)+1nn∑k=1tk=1
n times inequality (2) is the desired inequality.
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