I wish to prove or disprove that the sequence of functions fn=χ[n,n+1] is uniformly integrable?
At a glance my judgement is YES, it is uniformly integrable.
From the definition of Uniform integrability, that's
A sequence fn is called uniformly integrable if ∀ϵ>0∃δ>0 such that if E⊂X, E measurable and μ(E)<δ then ∀n ∫E|fn|dμ<ϵ.
So I let E⊂R such that μ(E)<δ
then ∫E|fn|=∫|fn|χE≤μ(E)<δ.
So in this case ϵ=δ.
Does this make sense?
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