Let m the Lebesgue measure on the reals and B(R) the Borel sigma algebra.
A transformation that preserves the Lebesgue measure is a Borel mensurable function T:R→R such that for all B∈B(R), m(B)=m(T−1(B)).
Show that, if f:R→R is a Borel measurable function and m(f−1(a,b]))=b−a, ∀$a
I can't figure out how to prove this. Appreciate any suggestions.
Answer
First, notice that the function A∈B(R)↦m(f−1(A))∈R is a measure. This measure is called the pushforward measure, and denoted by (f∗m). Thus, you have to show that m=(f∗m).
This question is a corollary of the uniqueness of extension of σ-finite measures:
If μ1 and μ2 are two measures on a σ-algebra S of a set S, B is a set that generates S, μ1(B)=μ2(B) for every B∈B and S can be written as S=⋃∞n=1Bn, where each Bn∈B satisfies μ1(B)=μ2(B)<∞, then μ1=μ2.
The condition that S can be written as a countable union of sets in B with finite measure is called σ-finiteness on B. You can find the proof for this result in this page, §9. Here, you use S=R, B the colletion of sets (a,b] for $a
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