Let f be a real-valued function continuous on [a,b] and differentiable on (a,b).
Suppose that limx→af′(x) exists.
Then, prove that f is differentiable at a and f′(a)=limx→af′(x).
It seems like an easy example, but a little bit tricky.
I'm not sure which theorems should be used in here.
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Using @David Mitra's advice and @Pete L. Clark's notes
I tried to solve this proof.
I want to know my proof is correct or not.
By MVT, for h>0 and ch∈(a,a+h)
f(a+h)−f(a)h=f′(ch)
and limh→0+ch=a.
Then limh→0+f(a+h)−f(a)h=limh→0+f′(ch)=limh→0+f′(a)
But that's enough? I think I should show something more, but don't know what it is.
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