I'm working on stats problems and am a bit rusty with calculus as I haven't worked with it in 3 years. My prof gave us an equation
$\int_{-\infty}^\infty ke^{\frac{-x^2}{2}} ~dx =1$ where XER and f(x) is a PDF to solve for k.
Could someone please explain to me how he arrived at $k = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}$
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