In part one of this youtube video the uploader goes on to explain the calculus proof for Euler's Formula.
The Formula
eix=cos(x)+isin(x)
Differentiate
ieix=f′(x)+ig′(x)
Multiply original formula by i
ieix=if(x)−g(x)
Equate the differentiation and the multiplied version
f′(x)+ig′(x)=if(x)−g(x)
Equate real and imaginary (and cancel the i)
f′(x)=−g(x)g′(x)=f(x)
Then he goes on to explain f(x)=cos(x) and g(x)=sin(x). My question is why can't f(x)=sin(x) and g(x)=−cos(x)? Can further proof be added to this proof to eliminate f(x)=sin(x) and g(x)=−cos(x)?
Answer
Because we know the initial condition ei0=1 holds. As with most differential equations, there's an family of answers that you need to use the initial condition to find the correct one for.
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