Tuesday, 29 April 2014

measure theory - Almost surely convergence to 0 if and only if convergence to 0 in probability




I am working on this question:




Prove that Xn0 a.s. if and only if for every ϵ>0, there exists n such that the following holds: for every random variable N:Ω{n,n+1,}, we have P({ω:|XN(ω)(ω)|>ϵ})<ϵ.




Is this question equivalent to asking me to prove "almost surely convergence to 0 if and only if convergence to 0 almost surely"?



If so, the direction () can be proved following this: Convergence in measure and almost everywhere




However, isn't the direction () not generally true? I can surely prove that there exists a subsequence Xkn of Xn converges to 0 almost surely...



Could someone tell me what this question is really asking about? I don't really want to spend time proving a wrong thing..



Thank you!


Answer



First, Xn0 a.s. iff for any ϵ>0, there exists n1 s.t. P(supmn|Xm|>ϵ)<ϵ. In the following we fix ϵ>0.



() Suppose that Xn0 a.s. Then since for any r.v. N on {n,n+1,}, |XN|supmn|Xm|, the result follows from the above statement.




() Let Nn:=inf{mn:|Xm|>ϵ}. Define Nn:=Nn1{Nn<}+n1{Nn=}. Then {supmn|Xm|>ϵ}={|XNn|>ϵ}. However, there exists n1 s.t. P(|XNn|>ϵ)<ϵ.


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