I am working on this question:
Prove that Xn→0 a.s. if and only if for every ϵ>0, there exists n such that the following holds: for every random variable N:Ω→{n,n+1,⋯}, we have P({ω:|XN(ω)(ω)|>ϵ})<ϵ.
Is this question equivalent to asking me to prove "almost surely convergence to 0 if and only if convergence to 0 almost surely"?
If so, the direction (⇒) can be proved following this: Convergence in measure and almost everywhere
However, isn't the direction (⇐) not generally true? I can surely prove that there exists a subsequence Xkn of Xn converges to 0 almost surely...
Could someone tell me what this question is really asking about? I don't really want to spend time proving a wrong thing..
Thank you!
Answer
First, Xn→0 a.s. iff for any ϵ>0, there exists n≥1 s.t. P(supm≥n|Xm|>ϵ)<ϵ. In the following we fix ϵ>0.
(⇒) Suppose that Xn→0 a.s. Then since for any r.v. N on {n,n+1,…}, |XN|≤supm≥n|Xm|, the result follows from the above statement.
(⇐) Let N′n:=inf{m≥n:|Xm|>ϵ}. Define Nn:=N′n1{N′n<∞}+n1{N′n=∞}. Then {supm≥n|Xm|>ϵ}={|XNn|>ϵ}. However, there exists n≥1 s.t. P(|XNn|>ϵ)<ϵ.
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