Does there exist a non-(Lebesgue)measurable set A⊂R such that B={x∈A:x∈R∖Q} is measurable?
My thoughts: the only non-measurable sets I've seen so far are the Vitali sets, so thinking along this line - are the irrational points in a Vitali set V measurable? It would be enough to show that their complement is measurable - that is, is the set {x∈V:x∈Q} measurable? Since the set V is obtained by taking the quotient group R∖Q, the rational points are all in a single equivalence class represented by, say, 0, which certainly is measurable as it is a singleton.
Is my thinking correct? If not, does there exist another example?
Answer
No.
Let I be the set of irrational numbers.
Let V⊆R non measurable.
If V∩I is measurable with respect to the Lebesgue measure then V∩Q is measurable as a set of Lebesgue measure zero .
Thus V=(V∩I)∪(V∩Q) would be measurable as a union of measurable sets.
This is a contradiction.
Also note that the Lebesgue measure is complete so a subset of a set of Lebesgue measure zero is measurable.
No comments:
Post a Comment