I recently got a book on number theory and am working through some of the basic proofs. I was able to prove that n∑i=1i3=(n∑i=1i)2 with the help of the identity n∑i=1i=n(n+1)2 My proof of the induction step goes as follows (supposing equality holds for all k∈{1,2,…n}): n+1∑i=1i3=n∑i=1i3+(n+1)3=(n∑i=1i)2+(n+1)3=(n(n+1)2)2+(n+1)3=n2(n+1)24+4(n+1)34=n4+2n3+n24+4n3+12n2+12n+44=n4+6n3+13n2+12n+44=(n2+3n+2)24=[(n+1)(n+2)]24=((n+1)(n+2)2)2=(n+1∑i=1i)2 I was a little disappointed in my proof because the algebra got really hairy. It took me a long while to see that I could twice unfoil the polynomial n4+6n3+13n2+12n+4 and all in all the solution seems pretty inelegant. Does anyone have a smoother way to prove the induction step or bypass the algebra? I feel like their must be some concise way to get the same result.
Answer
An idea for your fourth line:
n2(n+1)24+4(n+1)34=(n+1)24(n2+4n+4)=(n+1)24(n+2)2
No comments:
Post a Comment