I was just going through the proof of derivative of inverse functions.
The statement reads:
If y=f(x) is a differentiable function of x such that it's inverse x=f−1(y) exists, then x is a differentiable function of y and it's derivative is dxdy=1dydx,dydx≠0
Which naturally arises few questions, what if the inverse y=f(x) doesn't exist?
My Questions :
- Does dxdy still have a meaning?
- If so then what would it mean geometrically?
- Would dxdy=1dydx still hold? And if it does, then why do we even need the invertible condition in the statement?
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