Friday, 11 November 2016

Proof by induction, inequality




The sequence of real numbers  a1,a2,a3..... is such that  a1=1 and an+1=(an+1an)λ


where  λ>1



Prove by mathematical induction that for n2
an2g(n)


where g(n)=λn1



Attempt




I have solved the base case. I am having a problem in proving the statement for n+1. I tried two methods. Here they are:



Method 1



Assuming inductive hypothesis to be true
an2g(n)


an+1an2g(n)

(an+1an)λ(2g(n))λ

an+12g(n+1)




The statement holds true for n+1



Is this method correct?



Method 2
an+12g(n)=an+12g(n)


an+12g(n)=(an+1an)λ2g(n)

an+12g(n)=(a2n+1)λaλn2g(n+1)

an+12g(n)=(a2n+1)λ(aλn)(2g(n+1))aλn

In this method, I don't know how to show (a2n+1)λ(aλn)(2g(n)) and aλn to be greater than or equal to 0 which is necessary to prove the statement.




Can somebody provide me some hints which would prove beneficial in solving this problem?


Answer



Hint:



Step 1: Check that the conclusion holds for n=1 (which is immediate and necessary, but absent in your proof);



Step 2: Given that the conclusion holds for some n1 (i.e., an2g(n)), show that it also holds for n+1, i.e., an+12g(n+1). One way to show this is by first proving that the function
f(x)=(x+1x)λ


is strictly increasing when x1, which is not difficult. With this result, we will see that

an+1=(an+1an)λ(2g(n)+2g(n))λ>2λg(n)=2g(n+1).

Completing the two steps yields the desired result.


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