The sequence of real numbers a1,a2,a3..... is such that a1=1 and an+1=(an+1an)λ
where λ>1
Prove by mathematical induction that for n≥2
an≥2g(n)
where g(n)=λn−1
Attempt
I have solved the base case. I am having a problem in proving the statement for n+1. I tried two methods. Here they are:
Method 1
Assuming inductive hypothesis to be true
an≥2g(n)
an+1an≥2g(n)
(an+1an)λ≥(2g(n))λ
an+1≥2g(n+1)
The statement holds true for n+1
Is this method correct?
Method 2
an+1−2g(n)=an+1−2g(n)
an+1−2g(n)=(an+1an)λ−2g(n)
an+1−2g(n)=(a2n+1)λaλn−2g(n+1)
an+1−2g(n)=(a2n+1)λ−(aλn)(2g(n+1))aλn
In this method, I don't know how to show (a2n+1)λ−(aλn)(2g(n)) and aλn to be greater than or equal to 0 which is necessary to prove the statement.
Can somebody provide me some hints which would prove beneficial in solving this problem?
Answer
Hint:
Step 1: Check that the conclusion holds for n=1 (which is immediate and necessary, but absent in your proof);
Step 2: Given that the conclusion holds for some n≥1 (i.e., an≥2g(n)), show that it also holds for n+1, i.e., an+1≥2g(n+1). One way to show this is by first proving that the function
f(x)=(x+1x)λ
is strictly increasing when x≥1, which is not difficult. With this result, we will see that
an+1=(an+1an)λ≥(2g(n)+2−g(n))λ>2λg(n)=2g(n+1).
Completing the two steps yields the desired result.
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