Question : Is the following true for any n∈N?
⌊(∞∑k=n1k3)−1⌋=2n(n−1).
Note that ⌊x⌋ is the largest integer not greater than x.
Motivation : I've been able to prove the following (⋆):
"For any n∈N,
\left\lfloor\left(\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac 1{k^2}\right)^{-1}\right\rfloor=n-1."
Then, I reached the above expectation. However, I can't prove that this expectation is true. Can anyone help?
Proof for (\star) : The n=1 case is obvious. In the following, let n\ge 2. First, since
\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac {1}{k^2}\gt\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k(k+1)}=\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\left(\frac 1k-\frac{1}{k+1}\right)=\frac 1n,
we get
\begin{align}\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2}\gt \frac 1n\qquad(1)\end{align}
Next, since
\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac {1}{k^2}\lt\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k(k-1)}=\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\left(\frac 1{k-1}-\frac{1}{k}\right)=\frac 1{n-1},
we get
\begin{align}\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2}\lt \frac 1{n-1}\qquad(2)\end{align}
(1)(2) give us
\frac 1n\lt\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2}\lt\frac{1}{n-1}\rightarrow n-1\lt\left(\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2}\right)^{-1}\lt n.
Hence, \left\lfloor\left(\sum_{k=n}^{\infty}\frac 1{k^2}\right)^{-1}\right\rfloor=n-1
as desired.
Answer
Yes, it is true:
\sum_{k=n}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^3} < \sum_{k=n}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k(k^2-1)} = \sum_{k=n}^{\infty} \Big( \frac{1}{2k(k-1)} - \frac{1}{2k(k+1)}\Big) = \frac{1}{2n(n-1)} and \sum_{k=n}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k^3} > \sum_{k=n}^{\infty} \frac{k}{k^4 + \frac{1}{4}} = \sum_{k=n}^{\infty} \Big( \frac{1}{2k^2 -2k + 1} - \frac{1}{2(k+1)^2 - 2(k+1) + 1}\Big) =\frac{1}{2n^2 - 2n + 1} = \frac{1}{2n(n-1) + 1}.
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