Can someone please help me answer this question?
From the definition of symmetry it follows that: P(X≥b+x)=P(X≤b−x). What I did:
E[X]=∑xiP(X=xi)=∑(b+(xi−b))P(X=xi)=∑bP(X=xi)+∑(xi−b)P(X=xi)=b⋅1 + (a−b)P(X=a) + (b−a)P(X=2b−a) = b due to the symmetry of the random varible X since it follows that P(X=2b−a)=P(X=a). Is this correct?
Thanks in advance!
Answer
We have $a<0. Thus $$\mathbb{P}(X=a)=\mathbb{P}(Xand
P(X=2b−a)=P(X>b)
By symmetry of X about b:
P(X≥b)=P(X≤b)=1−q
for some q∈(0,1)
Thus $$\begin{align*}\mathbb{P}(Xb)&=q\\\mathbb{P}(X=b)&=1-2q\end{align*}$$
It follows that
E[X]=qa+q(2b−a)+(1−2q)b=b.
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