Wednesday, 19 June 2013

Proving a bijection with contradiction and induction



Let A={a1,a2,...,an} where a1<a2<<an. Let ϕ:AA be one-to-one correspondence, and a1+ϕ(a1)<a2+ϕ(a2)<<an+ϕ(an).
Show that ϕ(ai)=ai for i=1,2,,n.



We prove this by contradiction and induction. When n=1, obviously, a1=ϕ(a1). Assume ai=ϕ(ai) for 1in, we want to prove that an+1=ϕ(an+1), and the inequality is false otherwise. We make an+1=ϕ(ak) for some 1kn.



From here, I had a few ideas such as engaging in a series of "swaps" between different unsatisfactory ϕ(a_k) until a contradiction occurs, or using strong induction, but I don't know how to continue the proof.


Answer




For anything but the simplest problems, induction isn't the kind of thing you go into the proof knowing that you'll use it. You might strongly suspect that induction will happen, but it's hard to know in advance exactly how it will happen. Instead, here is how I thought of a proof, and stumbled onto the fact that it wanted to use induction. The bits in block quotes are a self-contained proof; the surrounding text is explanation.



If we can show that any a_i = \phi(a_i), then we're immediately done by induction.



More generally,




We are done by induction - "strong induction" if you must - if we can find a strict nonempty subset of the a_i such that \phi is bijective on that subset.






  • Suppose \phi(a_2) = a_1, the smallest possible way this theorem could fail. Then a_1 + a_2 = a_2 + \phi(a_2) > a_1 + \phi(a_1), so a_2 > \phi(a_1) and hence \phi(a_1) = a_1. So we've found our fixed point of \phi and we're done. (Actually we've also found a contradiction, but that's not important.)


  • Suppose \phi(a_3) = a_1. Then we have \phi(a_2) + a_2 < \phi(a_3) + a_3 = a_1 + a_3 < a_2 + a_3, so \phi(a_2) < a_3 and hence either \phi(a_2) = a_2 (a fixed point!) or \phi(a_2) = a_1 (in which case we're done, either by noting the contradiction that \phi(a_2) = \phi(a_3), or by invoking the previous case.)




Looks like induction might work.



Suppose \phi(a_k) = a_1. Then we have \phi(a_{k-1}) + a_{k-1} < \phi(a_k) + a_k = a_1 + a_k < a_{k-1} + a_k, so \phi(a_{k-1}) < a_k.



Similarly:





Suppose \phi(a_k) = a_1, with k \not = n. Then for all i with 1 \leq i < k, we have \phi(a_{k-i}) + a_{k-i} < \phi(a_k) + a_k = a_1 + a_k < a_{k-i} + a_k, so \phi(a_{k-i}) < a_k.



So \phi sends \{a_1, \dots, a_k\} to \{a_1, \dots, a_k\}, so we're done by strong induction.




This argument fails only if k=n; then the inductive step isn't actually reducing anything. So the only bad case is if \phi(a_n) = a_1.



But now we can do the entire argument with reversed inequalities:





Suppose \phi(a_k) = a_n, with k \not = 1. Then for all i with k < k+i < n, we have \phi(a_{k+i}) + a_{k+i} > \phi(a_k) + a_k = a_n + a_k > a_{k+i} + a_k, so \phi(a_{k+i}) > a_k.



So \phi sends \{a_k, \dots, a_n \} to itself, so we're done by strong induction.




This argument fails only if k=1; then the inductive step isn't reducing anything.





So the bad case is that \phi(a_n) = a_1 and \phi(a_1) = a_n; in that case we're done by strong induction because we've found a subset \{a_1, a_n\} on which \phi is bijective.



This argument fails only if n=2; then the inductive step isn't reducing anything. A separate argument is required. [We can use the argument from above:] Suppose n=2, and that \phi(a_2) = a_1. Then a_1 + a_2 = a_2 + \phi(a_2) > a_1 + \phi(a_1), so a_2 > \phi(a_1) and hence \phi(a_1) = a_1. So we've found our fixed point of \phi and we're done. (Actually we've also found a contradiction, but that's not important.)







Summary: it turned out at the end that two base cases were required: n=1 and n=2. It wasn't obvious where the induction would come in until I did some small examples; then it became clear that strong induction was the way to go. Even then, it wasn't clear exactly which subset was required until noting how the most obvious method failed.


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