$f(S\cap T) \neq f(S) \cap f(T)$
but
$f^{-1}(Q \cap R)=f^{-1}(Q) \cap f^{-1}(R)$
Can you explain it in simple terms, so I understand why and develop the intuition to see if a statement is true or false just by looking at it?
$f(S\cap T) \neq f(S) \cap f(T)$
but
$f^{-1}(Q \cap R)=f^{-1}(Q) \cap f^{-1}(R)$
Can you explain it in simple terms, so I understand why and develop the intuition to see if a statement is true or false just by looking at it?
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