I'm looking for clarification on how to compute a Laurent series for
cotz
I started by trying to find the 1sinz. I've found multiple references that go from an Taylor expansion for sinz directly to an expression for 1sinz but I am unable to follow how they got there. This thread Calculate Laurent series for 1/sin(z) started to answer my question but I do not understand how to use the given formulas to "iteratively compute" the coefficients, and the example given has several coefficients in place and I'm not sure how they were obtained.
Answer
If you are looking for a trucated series, you could start from tan(z)=z+z33+2z515+17z7315+62z92835+O(z11) which makes cot(z)=1z+z33+2z515+17z7315+62z92835+O(z11)=1z11+z23+2z415+17z6315+62z82835+O(z10) and perform long division to get cot(z)=1z−z3−z345−2z5945−z74725+O(z9) If you want the infinite series consider that cot(z)=1tan(z)=f(z)=∞∑i=0aizi−1 what you can rewrite as 1=tan(z)∞∑i=0aizi−1 that is to say 1=(∞∑n=1B2n(−4)n(1−4n)(2n)!z2n−1)×∞∑i=0aizi−1 For simplicity, let us define bn=B2n(−4)n(1−4n)(2n)! in order to solve 1=∞∑n=1bnz2n−1×∞∑i=0aizi−1 Developing, we get
1=a0b1+a1b1z+(a2b1+a0b2)z2+(a3b1+a1b2)z3+(a4b1+a2b2+a0b3)z4+(a5b1+a3b2+a1b3)z5+(a6b1+a4b2+a2b3+a0b4)z6+(a7b1+a5b2+a3b3+a1b4)z7+⋯ Now,we need to solve, for the ai's the equations a0b1=1 a1b1=0 a2b1+a0b2=0 a3b1+a1b2=0 a4b1+a2b2+a0b3=0 a5b1+a3b2+a1b3=0 a6b1+a4b2+a2b3+a0b4=0 a7b1+a5b2+a3b3+a1b4=0 This does not make much problem (using successive eliminations for example).
This leads to the infinite series
cot(z)=∞∑n=0(−1)n22nB2n(2n)!z2n−1
No comments:
Post a Comment