I'm trying to prove $ \log(x) < x$ for $x > 0$ by induction.
Base case: $x = 1$
$\log (1) < 1$ ---> $0 < 1$ which is certainly true.
Inductive hypothesis: Assume $x = k$ ---> $\log(k) < k$ for $k > 0$
Inductive conclusion: Prove $\log(k+1) < k+1$
I don't know what to do after this. I mean the statement itself is quite obviously true, but how do I continue with the proof?
Answer
I don't know why you'd use induction, (unless your domain of each function is $\mathbb{N}\setminus \{0\}$). Here is an alternative approach using calculus. If this is not helpful, I can delete this answer.
Let $g(x)= x- \log(x)$.
$g'(x) = 1 - \frac{1}{x} > 0 $
for all $ x >1$. So $g(x)$ is increasing on $(1,\infty)$.
At $x=1$, $g(x) = 1$, thus $x - \log(x) > 0$ for all $x \ge 1$ (use continuity and the known value at $x = 1$ with what has just been shown about the monotony of $g$).
Now for $x\in (0,1)$, $\log(x) < 0$ and $x>0$ thus $x-\log(x) > 0$.
Thus $x-\log(x) > 0 $ for all $x \in (0,\infty)$. And conclude $x> \log(x) $ for all $x\in (0,\infty)$.
Added
If you want to use induction to show that for each $x\in \mathbb{N}\setminus \{0\}$, $x>\log(x)$, use your inductive hypothesis via:
$$
k > \log(k) \longrightarrow \\
k+\log(1+\frac{1}{k})> \log(k)+\log(1+\frac{1}{k}) = \log(k+1) \\
k+\log(1+\frac{1}{k}) \le k + \log(2) \text{ and }
\log(2) < 1 \text{ so } \\
k + \log(2) < k + 1 \text{ thus } \\
k+1 > k + \log(2) \ge k + \log(1+\frac{1}{k}) > \log(k+1)
$$
Q.E.D.
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