Prove that if T:V→W is one to one and Tv1,...Tvn is a basis for W, then v1,...,vn is also a basis for V.
My idea is to introduce a T−1 and then do a proof that is similar to the converse which is proven in many textbook. However, for the converse, there is also a requirement for T to be onto. I am wondering, why for this case, onto is not needed.
Answer
The proof of Nameless, as it stands now, only proves that the viare linearly independent. You must also prove that they span V.
Let v∈V, and consider w=T(v), an element of the image of T. By assumption, w can be written uniquely as
T(v)=w=c1T(v1)+…cnT(vn)=T(c1v1+⋯+cnvn).
Since T is one-to-one, one obtains
v=c1v1+⋯+cnvn.
Also, the linear independence bit does not require a proof by contradiction. If
0=c1v1+⋯+cnvn,
apply T. BY a standard property of linear maps, we have T(0)=0, thus
0=c1T(v1)+…cnT(vn),
and since the T(vi) are linearly independent by assumption, we have that all ci are 0, showing that the vi are also linearly independent.
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