Suppose I have a sequence of r.v.'s {Xn}n∈N. I have shown that P(|Xn|>a)<C1e−C2a for all n. From here, I can show that lim. My question is, does this imply that X_n's are uniformly integrable?
I know that if \sup_n \left|X_n\right| < Y and \mathbb{E}\left[Y\right] < \infty, then X_n's are uniformly integrable. But do I have to construct an explicit random variable here? This notes says that
Answer
You don't have necessarily to construct such a random variable Y (it is a sufficient condition, but not a necessary one). One possible approach to prove the uniform integrability is the following:
For any non-negative random variable Z it holds that
\mathbb{E}(Z) = \int_0^{\infty} \mathbb{P}(Z > r) \, dr.
Applying this to Z := 1_{|X_n|>a} |X_n| (for fixed n and a) we find
\begin{align*} \int_{|X_n|>a} |X_n| \, d\mathbb{P} &= \int_0^a \mathbb{P}(|X_n|>a) \, dr +\int_a^{\infty} \mathbb{P}(|X_n|>r) \, dr \\ &\leq C_1a e^{-C_2a } + C_1 \int_a^{\infty} e^{-C_2r} \, dr. \end{align*}
Thus,
\sup_{n \geq 1} \int_{|X_n|>a} |X_n| \, d\mathbb{P} \leq C_1a e^{-C_2a } + C_1 \int_a^{\infty} e^{-C_2 r} \, dr \xrightarrow[]{a \to \infty} 0
which shows that (X_n)_{n \geq 1} is uniformly integrable.
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