Let f: R → R be a function such that f(x+y) = f(x)f(y) for all x,y ∈ R. Suppose that f′(0) exists. Prove that f is a differentiable function.
This is what I've tried:
Using the definition of differentiability and taking arbitrary x0 ∈ R.
limh→0 f(x0+h)−f(x0)h = ⋯ = f(x0)limh→0 f(h)−1h.
Then since x0 arbitrary, using f(x0+0)=f(x0)=f(x0)f(0) for y=0, can I finish the proof?
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