Let (X,dX) and (Y,dY) be metric spaces, let f:X→Y, and let (fn)∞n=1 be a sequence of functions fn:X→Y .
Prove or give a counterexample to the following statement:
If f is continuous and fn→f uniformly on X as n→∞, then there must exist some N≥1 such that fn is continuous for each n≥N.
I believe that the following statement is not true, and my counterexample lies within the following lines.
I know that it has to be something with 1n but I know we hvae to modify this a bit in order to account for the continuity, I would really appreciate some help in modifying my counterexample so it fully works, thank you!
Answer
Since you are looking for an counterexample, you can simplify the setting. For example, let be X=Y=R and dX and dY the euclidean metric.
Now, you can choose f to be constant, for example f≡0. Next, you can construction a sequence of function (fn)∞n=1 with an jump, which becomes 0 for n→∞. Since each fn has a jump, they are all not continuous, while f is continouous.
One simple example for a sequence (fn)∞n=1 with fn→f uniformly.
Define fn(x)={1nx>00x≤0
Or a bit more extreme example for a sequence (fn)∞n=1 with fn→f uniformly.
Define fn(x)={1nx∈Q0x∈R∖Q In this example, fn is discontinuous everywhere for all n∈N, while f is continuous.
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