f is a continuous function on
[0,+∞) and differentiable on (0,+∞), and f is strictly decreasing on (0,+∞)
the question is: is this inequality true for each (a,b) ∈([0,+∞))2 such as $a
(b−a)f(b)⩽f(b)−f(a)⩽(b−a)f(a)
I've tried to prove that ∀x∈[a,b] : f(b)⩽f′(x)⩽f(a) so I can apply the mean value theorem
on [a,b]
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