Pretty self explanatory. I'm trying to find the range of f(x)=arctan(1+1x)
but in all honesty, I'm not really sure how to proceed. I feel like there is something very silly and obvious I'm missing. I can find the domain fairly easily but how do I go about finding the range without taking its inverse? Is that even possible?
I have the same problem with:
f(x)=ex+√x2+1
In general, how would I go about finding the range? I know I can just take the inverse and find the domain of that, but is that the only way? Thanks!
Answer
At first we need to show the range for f(x)=1+1x which is of course (−∞,∞)∖{1}, indeed
y=1+1x⟺x=1y−1
therefore we can reach any value but not y=1.
For the second one we have that x+√x2+1>0 and
lim
\lim_{x\to -\infty} x+\sqrt{x^2+1}=\lim_{u\to \infty} -u+\sqrt{u^2+1}=\lim_{u\to \infty} \frac{-u^2+u^2+1}{u+\sqrt{u^2+1}}=0
In order to avoid limits note that
y=x+\sqrt{x^2+1} \iff (y-x)^2=x^2+1 \iff y^2-2xy+x^2=x^2+1 \iff x=\frac{y^2-1}{2y}
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