I'd like help finding
limx→0e2x−1tanx
without the use of L'Hôpital's rule.
So far I did this:
limx→0e2x−1tanx
=limx→0cosx(e2x−1)sinx
=limx→0xcosx(e2x−1)xsinx
=limx→0cosx(e2x−1)x
Basically I got nowhere. Any hints or partial solutions to help me?
By the way, the is the 1969 AP BC Multiple Choice #28.
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