If a function $f(x)$ is proportional to $\ln x$, then we know
$$ f(xy) = f(x) + f(y). $$
My question is, is the converse true? If we know that, for an unknown function f,
$$ f(xy) = f(x) + f(y), $$
can we conclude that the function must be proportional to $\ln x$? Why?
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