Find:
$$
L = \lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin\left(1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\right)}{x^2}
$$
My approach:
Because of the fact that the above limit is evaluated as $\frac{0}{0}$, we might want to try the De L' Hospital rule, but that would lead to a more complex limit which is also of the form $\frac{0}{0}$.
What I tried is:
$$
L = \lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin\left(1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\right)}{1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}}\frac{1}{x^2}\left(1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\right)
$$
Then, if the limits
$$
L_1 = \lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin\left(1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\right)}{1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}},
$$
$$
L_2 = \lim_{x\to0}\frac{1}{x^2}\left(1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\right)
$$
exist, then $L=L_1L_2$.
For the first one, by making the substitution $u=1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}$, we have
$$
L_1 = \lim_{u\to u_0}\frac{\sin(u)}{u},
$$
where
$$
u_0 = \lim_{x\to0}\left(1-\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\right)=0.
$$
Consequently,
$$
L_1 = \lim_{u\to0}\frac{\sin(u)}{u}=1.
$$
Moreover, for the second limit, we apply the De L' Hospital rule twice and we find $L_2=\frac{1}{6}$.
Finally, $L=1\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{6}$.
Is this correct?
Answer
In a slightly different way, using the Taylor expansion, as $x \to 0$,
$$
\sin x=x-\frac{x^3}6+O(x^5)
$$ gives
$$
1-\frac{\sin x}x=\frac{x^2}6+O(x^4)
$$ then
$$
\sin \left( 1-\frac{\sin x}x\right)=\frac{x^2}6+O(x^4)
$$ and
$$
\frac{\sin \left( 1-\frac{\sin x}x\right)}{x^2}=\frac16+O(x^2)
$$
from which one may conclude easily.
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