Let f:R→R be a C1 function. Let g:R2→R2
(x,y)↦g(x,y)=(x+f(y),y+f(x)).
Suppose sup
i.) Prove that \forall\;(x_0,y_0)\in \Bbb{R}^2,\;\;g'(x_0,y_0)\in ISO(\Bbb{R}^2)
ii.)Prove that g is one-one
iii.)Prove that g(\Bbb{R}^2) is clopen in \Bbb{R}^2.
iv.)Conclude
Part i.) and ii.) are not problems at all. I have been able to show that g(\Bbb{R}^2) is open by Local Inverse Mapping Theorem. So, I want to show that it is closed.
MY WORK:
It suffices to show that \overline{g(\Bbb{R}^2)}\subset g(\Bbb{R}^2).
Let (t,z)\in \overline{g(\Bbb{R}^2)}, then \exists\;(x_j)_j,(y_j)_j\subset \Bbb{R}^2 such that \begin{align}g(x_j,y_j)\to(t,z)\end{align}
Then (g(x_j,y_j))_j is a Cauchy sequence in \Bbb{R}^2. So, \forall\;\epsilon>0,\;\exists\;j_0\in\Bbb{N} such that \forall\;j,k\geq j_0
\begin{align}|g(x_j,y_j)-g(x_k,y_k)|<\epsilon.\end{align}
\begin{align}|(x_j+f(y_j),y_j+f(x_j))-(x_k+f(y_k),y_k+f(x_k))|<\epsilon,\;\;\forall\;j,k\geq j_0;\end{align}
I think we should be able to use the fact that f is C^1 implies that it is Lipschitz, to move forward but I don't know how-to. Please, can someone help me? I also would need a conclusion, drawn from all these! Thanks for your time and efforts!
Answer
This is rather an extended comment.
Assume that \lVert \cdot \rVert is Euclidean norm on \mathbb{R}^2. Put \mu := \sup\lvert f'\rvert < 1. By the mean value theorem, for any x, \xi \in \mathbb{R} one has \lvert f(x) - f(\xi) \rvert \le \mu \lvert x - \xi \rvert.
For (x,y), (\xi, \eta) \in \mathbb{R}^2 we write
\lVert (x,y) - (\xi,\eta) \rVert = \lVert (x - \xi, y - \eta) \rVert \\ \le \lVert \bigl((x + f(y)) - (\xi + f(\eta)), (y+ f(x)) - (\eta + f(\xi)\bigr) \rVert + \lVert \bigl(f(\eta) - f(y), f(\xi) - f(x)\bigr) \rVert.
The first term on the right-hand side is just \lVert g(x,y) - g(\xi,\eta) \rVert. Regarding the second term, we estimate
\lVert \bigl(f(\eta) - f(y), f(\xi) - f(x)\bigr) \rVert = \sqrt{(f(\eta) - f(y))^2 + (f(\xi) - f(x))^2} \\ \le \sqrt{\mu^2 \bigl((\eta - y)^2 + (\xi - x)^2\bigr)} = \mu \lVert (x,y) - (\xi,\eta) \rVert.
Consequently
\lVert (x,y) - (\xi,\eta) \rVert \le \frac{1}{1 - \mu} \lVert g(x,y) - g(\xi,\eta) \rVert.
Therefore, for a Cauchy sequence (g(x_j,y_j))_j, ((x_j,y_j))_j is a Cauchy sequence, too. By completeness, it converges to some (\tilde{x}, \tilde{y}), and, by continuity, g(\tilde{x}, \tilde{y}) = (t, z).
And a conclusion is that g is a homeomorphism (even more, a C^1 diffeomorphism) of \mathbb{R}^2 onto itself.
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