Prove that if |an+1an|≤|bn+1bn| for n>>1, and ∑bn is absolutely convergent, then ∑an is absolutely convergent.
My attempt at a solution:
By the Comparison Theorem, since |bn+1bn| converges by hypothesis, and since |an+1an|≤|bn+1bn|, then ∑an must also converge.
Questions:
I know this is valid if bn is not equal to 1. However, how would I proceed to prove this in the case where it is equal to 1? Would I be able to make an estimate using the given information about bn being absolutely convergent?
Thanks in advance, I greatly appreciate suggestions/feedback/advice.
I am using the textbook Introduction to Analysis by Arthur Mattuck.
Answer
Here is a hint:
You have some N such that For n≥N, |an+1an|≤|bn+1bn|.
Then for n>N (notice the strict inequality), and we have anaN=aN+1aN⋯anan−1, and similarly for the bn.
So |an|≤|aN||aN+1aN|⋯|anan−1|≤|aN||bN+1bN|⋯|bnbn−1|=|aN||bnbN|=|aNbN||bn|.
Addendum: To see why |bn+1bn| does not necessarily converge, consider the following:
It is straightforward to see (because of the 1n2 form) that bn={4n2,n even8n(n+1)2,n odd is a convergent series.
If n is odd, we have bn+1bn=n2, and hence lim sup. (And since \liminf_n \frac{b_{n+1}}{b_n} = 0, the ratio does not converge.)
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