I saw this property listed in Princeton Review's Math GRE book:
"For any positive integer c, the statement a\equiv b\mod n is equivalent to the congruences a\equiv b,b+n,b+2n,\ldots,b+(c-1)n\mod cn."
Now, my problem is that I have no idea what it's telling me. An example would suffice, because my own attempts to generate examples seem to end in failure. I tried starting with 10\equiv 2 \bmod 8 and c=4, but 10\equiv 26\mod 32 is false (26 = 2 + 3\cdot8 and 32 = 4\cdot8).
Any help is appreciated!
Answer
Example: a = 10, b = 2, n = 8, c = 4.
\begin{align} 10 &\equiv 2 \pmod{8}. \end{align}
The equivalence guarantees
\begin{align} a &\equiv b + dn \pmod{32} \end{align}
for some 0 \leq d < 4. Indeed,
\begin{align} 10 &\equiv 2 + 1 \cdot 8 \\ &\equiv 10\pmod{32}. \end{align}
Justification: Here is a proof for the first direction. Let c be a positive integer. Suppose
\begin{align} a \equiv b \pmod{n}. \end{align}
Then a = b + d n for some integer d. If we reduce modulo cn we have
\begin{align} a \equiv b + dn \pmod{cn}. \end{align}
for some integer d. The set \{0,n,2n,\dots,(c-1)n\} are all possible reductions of dn modulo cn. Hence
\begin{align} a \equiv b + dn \pmod{cn}. \end{align}
for some integer 0 \leq d < c. Moreover only one integer d in this range will satisfy this congruence, since jn \not\equiv kn \pmod{cn} for integers j,k such that 0 \leq j < k < c.
The reverse direction is much easier, just reduce modulo n. That is, suppose
\begin{align} a \equiv b + dn \pmod{cn}. \end{align}
for some integer 0 \leq d < c. Then a = b + dn + kcn for some integer k. Thus,
\begin{align} a &\equiv b + dn + kcn \\ &\equiv b \pmod{n}. \end{align}
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