(bn)→b if ∀ϵ>0 ∃N∈N such that if n>N, then |bn−b|<ϵ.
|bn−b|<ϵ
|bnb||1bn−1b|<ϵ
|1bn−1b|<ϵ|bn||b|
If (bn) is convergent, then it is also bounded : ∃M>0:M≥|bn|∀n∈N, this leads to
|1bn−1b|<ϵM|b|
Convergence proofs that I have read so far try to manipulate the expression above into
|1bn−1b|<ϵ
Is this necessary? ϵM|b| is just another "ϵ" for the |1bn−1b| sequence.
I could say: choose such N so that |bn−b|<ϵM|b|, which results in
|1bn−1b|<ϵM|b|M|b|
|1bn−1b|<ϵ
However, nothing in the convergence theorem states that ϵ of two such sequences need to be the same. My question: Is it valid to state
ϵM|b|=ϵ′ and use the convergence definition?
If ∀ϵ′>0 ∃N∈N such that if n>N, then |1bn−1b|<ϵ′, then (1bn−1b) converges.
Since
|1bn−1b|<ϵM|b|=ϵ′ is equivalent to
|bn−b|<ϵ
this proves the statement.
Answer
I stopped reading when I saw "this leads to ..."; the inequality there is wrong.
Indeed, to prove the statement, let bn,b≠0 for all n≥1. If n≥1, then
|1bn−1b|=|bn−b||bn||b|;
there is some N1≥1 such that ||bn|−|b||≤|bn−b|<|b|/2 for all n≥N1 by convergence of (bn), implying that |b|/2<|bn| for all n≥N1, implying that
|bn−b||bn||b|≤2|bn−b|b2
for all n≥N1; moreover, given any ε>0, by convergence of (bn) again there is further some N2≥1 such that n≥N2 implies |bn−b|<b2ε/2, showing that
2|bn−b|/b2<ε for all n≥N2. Putting all the previous things together, we conclude that, for every ε>0, we having n≥max implies
\bigg| \frac{1}{b_{n}} - \frac{1}{b} \bigg| < \varepsilon.
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