Wednesday, 21 June 2017

convergence divergence - If a sequence (bn) converges to b, bne0, prove that (frac1bn) converges to frac1b



(bn)b if ϵ>0 NN such that if n>N, then |bnb|<ϵ.




|bnb|<ϵ



|bnb||1bn1b|<ϵ



|1bn1b|<ϵ|bn||b|



If (bn) is convergent, then it is also bounded : M>0:M|bn|nN, this leads to



|1bn1b|<ϵM|b|




Convergence proofs that I have read so far try to manipulate the expression above into



|1bn1b|<ϵ



Is this necessary? ϵM|b| is just another "ϵ" for the |1bn1b| sequence.



I could say: choose such N so that |bnb|<ϵM|b|, which results in



|1bn1b|<ϵM|b|M|b|




|1bn1b|<ϵ



However, nothing in the convergence theorem states that ϵ of two such sequences need to be the same. My question: Is it valid to state



ϵM|b|=ϵ and use the convergence definition?



If ϵ>0 NN such that if n>N, then |1bn1b|<ϵ, then (1bn1b) converges.



Since




|1bn1b|<ϵM|b|=ϵ is equivalent to



|bnb|<ϵ



this proves the statement.


Answer



I stopped reading when I saw "this leads to ..."; the inequality there is wrong.



Indeed, to prove the statement, let bn,b0 for all n1. If n1, then
|1bn1b|=|bnb||bn||b|;
there is some N11 such that ||bn||b|||bnb|<|b|/2 for all nN1 by convergence of (bn), implying that |b|/2<|bn| for all nN1, implying that
|bnb||bn||b|2|bnb|b2
for all nN1; moreover, given any ε>0, by convergence of (bn) again there is further some N21 such that nN2 implies |bnb|<b2ε/2, showing that
2|bnb|/b2<ε for all nN2. Putting all the previous things together, we conclude that, for every ε>0, we having nmax implies
\bigg| \frac{1}{b_{n}} - \frac{1}{b} \bigg| < \varepsilon.


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