I'm having trouble understanding a certain property of CDFs for negative random variables.
Let $Y$ be an exponential random variable and let $f_y, F_Y$ denote the PDF and CDF respectively.
My book claims that
$$f_{-Y}(y) = f_{Y}(-y)$$
I realized that I'm stuck on two parts.
I'm having trouble understanding firstly, the relationship between $-Y$ and $Y$.
I can't visualize the CDFs of $F_{-Y}$ and $F_{Y}$.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
Answer
Let $Y$ have exponential distribution. It looks as if we are defining a new random variable $-Y$. We want the cumulative distribution function of $-Y$. The interesting part of the distribution function $F_{-Y}(w)$ is when $w$ is negative.
We have
$$F_{-Y}(w)=\Pr(-Y\le w)=\Pr(Y\ge -w)=1-F_Y(-w).\tag{1}$$
Note that this is different from what in OP is described as the book's claim.
Now differentiate to find $f_{-Y}(w)$. The differentiation introduces two cancelling minus signs, and from (1) we get $f_{-Y}(w)=f_Y(-w)$. Perhaps the book mistakenly used $F$ instead of $f$.
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