When faced with the equation
cosz=√2
I want to solve for z so I break it up into a sum z=x+iy and get:
cosz=cosxcoshy−isinxsinhy
equating real and imaginary parts I am faced with
cosxcoshy=√2 and sinxsinhy=0
How do I go about solving from here I can't seem to get out of this loop where I have to end up using some ugly form for inverse hyperbolic function.
EDIT: cos−1z is defined in Churchill as
cos−1z=−ilog[z+i(1−z2)1/2]
Am I better off just plugging it in to here?
Answer
Avoid squaring whenever possible as it immediately introduces extraneous root(s)
We have eiz+e−iz2=√2
⟺(eiz)2−2√2(eiz)+1=0
⟹eiz=2√2±√8−42=√2±1
⟺iz=log(√2±1)
⟺z=−ilog(√2±1)
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