How do I show via direct proof that k(k+1)(k+2) is divisible by 6. I showed it was divisible by 2 because at least one of the multiples is even but could not figure out how to show it is divisible by 3. I tried making k even or odd and substituting 2q or 2q+1 but have not made much progress. Does anyone have any tips as to what direction I should take? Thanks!
Answer
By the division algorithm, k divided by 3 yields a remainder of 0, 1, or 2. In other words, there are some integers q,r such that k=3q+r where r=0,1, or 2.
If r=0, then k=3q is divisible by 3. If r=1, then k+2=(3q+1)+2=3(q+1) is divisible by e. If r=2, then k+1=(3q+2)+1=3(q+1) is divisible by 3. Therefore, in all cases, at least one of k, k+1, and k+2 is divisible by 3.
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